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Appendix
Answers to Review Questions

Chapter 1: Introduction to the Google Professional Cloud Architect Exam

  1. B. The correct answer is B. Business requirements are high-level, business-oriented requirements that are rarely satisfied by meeting a single technical requirement. Option A is incorrect because business sponsors rarely have sufficient understanding of technical requirements in order to provide a comprehensive list. Option C is incorrect, because business requirements constrain technical options but should not be in conflict. Option D is incorrect because there is rarely a clear consensus on all requirements. Part of an architect’s job is to help stakeholders reach a consensus.
  2. B. The correct answer is B. Managed services relieve DevOps work, preemptible machines cost significantly less than standard VMs, and autoscaling reduces the chances of running unnecessary resources. Options A and D are incorrect because access controls will not help reduce costs, but they should be used anyway. Options C and D are incorrect because there is no indication that a NoSQL database should be used.
  3. A. The correct answer is A. CI/CD supports small releases, which are easier to debug and enable faster feedback. Option B is incorrect, as CI/CD does not only use preemptible machines. Option C is incorrect because CI/CD works well with agile methodologies. Option D is incorrect, as there is no limit to the number of times new versions of code can be released.
  4. B. The correct answer is B. The finance director needs to have access to documents for seven years. This requires durable storage. Option A is incorrect because the access does not have to be highly available; as long as the finance director can access the document in a reasonable period of time, the requirement can be met. Option C is incorrect because reliability is a measure of being available to meet workload demands successfully. Option D is incorrect because the requirement does not specify the need for increasing and decreasing storage to meet the requirement.
  5. C. The correct answer is C. An incident in the context of IT operations and service reliability is a disruption that degrades or stops a service from functioning. Options A and B are incorrect—incidents are not related to scheduling. Option D is incorrect; in this context, incidents are about IT services, not personnel.
  6. D. The correct answer is D. HIPAA governs, among other things, privacy and data protections for private medical information. Option A is incorrect, as GDPR is a European Union regulation. Option B is incorrect, as SOX is a U.S. financial reporting regulation. Option C is incorrect, as PCI DSS is a payment card industry regulation.
  7. C. The correct answer is C. Cloud Spanner is a globally consistent, horizontally scalable relational database. Option A is incorrect. Cloud Storage is not a database; rather, it is an object storage system. Option B is incorrect because BigQuery is an analytics database. Option D is incorrect, as Microsoft SQL Server is not a managed database in Google Cloud.
  8. A. The correct answer is A. Cloud Datastore is a managed document database and a good fit for storing documents. Option B is incorrect because Cloud Spanner is a relational database and globally scalable. There is no indication that the developer needs a globally scalable solution. Option C is incorrect, as Cloud Storage is an object storage system, not a managed database. Option D is incorrect because BigQuery is an analytic database designed for data warehousing and similar applications.
  9. C. The correct answer is C. VPCs isolate cloud resources from resources in other VPCs, unless VPCs are intentionally linked. Option A is incorrect because a CIDR block has to do with subnet IP addresses. Option B is incorrect, as direct connections are for transmitting data between a data center and Google Cloud—it does not protect resources in the cloud. Option D is incorrect because Cloud Pub/Sub is a messaging service, not a networking service.
  10. A. The correct answer is A. Dress4Win is at capacity with its existing infrastructure and wants to innovate faster. Options B and C are incorrect because the decision is not influenced by competitors moving to the cloud. Option D is incorrect because short-term cost savings are not a consideration.
  11. C. The correct answer is C. Cloud SQL offers a managed MySQL service. Options A and B are incorrect, as neither is a database. Cloud Dataproc is a managed Hadoop and Spark service. Cloud Dataflow is a stream and batch processing service. Option D is incorrect, because PostgreSQL is another relational database, but it is not a managed service. PostgreSQL is an option in Cloud SQL, however.
  12. C. The correct answer is C. In Compute Engine, you create virtual machines and choose which operating system to run. All other requirements can be realized in App Engine.
  13. B. The correct answer is B. A significant increase in the use of streaming input will require changes to how data is ingested and require scalable ingestion services. An increase of almost two orders of magnitude in the number of pieces of equipment transmitting data will likely require architectural changes. Option A is incorrect, as additional reporting is easily accommodated. Option C is incorrect because the initial design will take into account that TerramEarth is in a competitive industry. Option D is incorrect, as collaborating with other companies will not require significant changes in systems design.
  14. A. The correct answer is A. Cloud Bigtable is a scalable, wide-column database designed for low-latency writes, making it a good choice for time-series data. Option B is incorrect because BigQuery is an analytic database not designed for the high volume of low-latency writes that will need to be supported. Options C and D are not managed databases.
  15. B. The correct answer is B. This is a typical use case for BigQuery, and it fits well with its capabilities as an analytic database. Option A is incorrect, as Cloud Spanner is best used for transaction processing on a global scale. Options C and D are not managed databases. Cloud Storage is an object storage service; Cloud Dataprep is a tool for preparing data for analysis.

Chapter 2: Designing for Business Requirements

  1. A. Option A is correct. Dress4Win is a consumer, e-commerce service that will grow with respect to the number of customers. Also, the number of designers and retailers will influence the growth in demand for compute and storage resources. Option B is incorrect because the length of run time is not relevant to compute or storage requirements. The type of storage used does not influence the amount of data the application needs to manage, or the amount of computing resources needed. Compliance and regulations may have some effect on security controls and monitoring, but it will not influence compute and storage resources in a significant way.
  2. A, C. Options A and C are correct. Both multiregional cloud storage and CDNs distribute data across a geographic area. Option B is incorrect because Coldline storage is used for archiving. Option D is incorrect because Cloud Pub/Sub is a messaging queue, not a storage system. Option E is a managed service for batch and stream processing.
  3. B. Option B is correct. High volumes of time-series data need low-latency writes and scalable storage. Time-series data is not updated after it is collected. This makes Bigtable, a wide-column data store with low-latency writes, the best option. Option A is wrong because BigQuery is an analytic database designed for data warehousing. Option C is wrong because Cloud Spanner is a global relational database. Write times would not be as fast as they would be using Bigtable, and the use case does not take advantage of Cloud Spanner’s strong consistency in a horizontally scalable relational database. Option D is not a good option because it is an object store, and it is not designed for large volumes of individual time-series data points.
  4. A. Option A is correct. Cloud Dataflow is a batch and stream processing service that can be used for transforming data before it is loaded into a data warehouse. Option C is incorrect, Cloud Dataprep is used to prepare data for analysis and machine learning. Option B, Cloud Dataproc, is a managed Hadoop and Spark service, not a data cleaning and preparing service. Option D, Cloud Datastore, is a document database, not a data processing service.
  5. C. The correct answer is C, write data to a Cloud Pub/Sub topic. The data can accumulate there as the application processes the data. No data is lost because Pub/Sub will scale as needed. Option A is not a good option because local storage does not scale. Option B is not a good choice because caches are used to provide low-latency access to data that is frequently accessed. Cloud Memorystore does not scale as well as Cloud Pub/Sub, and it may run out of space. Option D is not a good choice because tuning will require developers to invest potentially significant amounts of time without any guarantee of solving the problem. Also, even with optimizations, even larger spikes in data ingestion could result in the same problem of the processing application not being able to keep up with the rate at which data is arriving.
  6. B. Option B is correct. Using Cloud Dataproc will reduce the costs of managing the Spark cluster, while using preemptible VMs will reduce the compute charges. Option A is not the best option because you will have to manage the Spark cluster yourself, which will increase the total cost of ownership. Option C is incorrect as Cloud Dataflow is not a managed Spark service. Option D is incorrect because Cloud Memorystore does not reduce the cost of running Apache Spark and managing a cluster in Compute Engine is not the most cost-effective.
  7. C. The relevant health regulation is HIPAA, which regulates healthcare data in the United States. Option A is incorrect, as GDPR is a European Union privacy regulation. Option B is incorrect, as SOX is a regulation that applies to the financial industry. Option D is incorrect, because the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard does not apply to healthcare data.
  8. B. Option B is correct. Message digests are used to detect changes in files. Option A is incorrect because firewall rules block network traffic and are not related to detecting changes to data. Options C and D are important for controlling access to data, but they are not directly related to detecting changes to data.
  9. B. B is correct. Cloud KMS allows the customer to manage keys used to encrypt secret data. The requirements for the other categories are met by GCP’s default encryption-at-rest practice. Public data does not need to be encrypted, but there is no additional cost or overhead for having it encrypted at rest. Option A would meet the security requirements, but it would involve managing keys for more data than is necessary, and that would increase administrative overhead. Option C does not meet the requirements of secret data. Option D is a terrible choice. Encryption algorithms are difficult to develop and potentially vulnerable to cryptanalysis attacks. It would cost far more to develop a strong encryption algorithm than to use Cloud KMS and default encryption.
  10. C. The correct answer is C. Data that is not queried does not need to be in the database to meet business requirements. If the data is needed, it can be retrieved from other storage systems, such as Cloud Storage. Exporting and deleting data will reduce the amount of data in tables and improve performance. Since the data is rarely accessed, it is a good candidate for archival, Coldline storage. Answers A and B are incorrect because scaling either vertically or horizontally will increase costs more than the cost of storing the data in archival storage. Option D is incorrect because multiregional storage is more expensive than Coldline storage and multiregion access is not needed.
  11. B. Option B is correct. The manager does not have an accurate cost estimate of supporting the applications if operational support costs are not considered. The manager should have an accurate estimate of TCO before proceeding. Option A is incorrect because the manager does not have an accurate estimate of all costs. Option C is incorrect because it does not address the reliability issues with the applications. Option D may be a reasonable option, but if managed services meet the requirements, using them will solve the reliability issues faster than developing new applications.
  12. B. Option B is the best answer because it is a measure of how much customers are engaged in the game and playing. If average time played goes down, this is an indicator that customers are losing interest in the game. If the average time played goes up, they are more engaged and interested in the game. Options A and D are incorrect because revenue does not necessarily correlate with customer satisfaction. Also, it may not correlate with how much customers played the game if revenue is based on monthly subscriptions, for example. Option C is wrong because a year is too long a time frame for detecting changes as rapidly as one can with a weekly measure.
  13. C. Option C is correct. In stream processing applications that collect data for a time and then produce summary or aggregated data, there needs to be a limit on how long the processor waits for late-arriving data before producing results. Options A and B are incorrect because you do not need to know requirements for data lifecycle management or access controls to the database at this point, since your focus is on ingesting raw data and writing statistics to the database. Option D is incorrect. An architect should provide that list to a project manager, not the other way around.
  14. A. The correct option is A. Data Catalog is a managed service for metadata. Option B is incorrect, as Dataprep is a tool for preparing data for analysis and machine learning. Option C is incorrect, as Dataproc is a managed Hadoop and Spark service. Option D is incorrect because BigQuery is a database service designed for analytic databases and data warehousing.
  15. B. The correct option is B. Cloud Spanner is a horizontally scalable relational database that provides strong consistency, SQL, and scales to a global level. Options A and C are incorrect because they do not support SQL. Option D is incorrect because an inventory system is a transaction processing system, and BigQuery is designed for analytic, not transaction processing systems.
  16. B. Option B is correct. An API would allow dealers to access up-to-date information and allow them to query only for the data that they need. Dealers do not need to know implementation details of TerramEarth’s database. Options A and C are incorrect because nightly extracts or exports would not give access to up-to-date data, which could change during the day. Option D is incorrect because it requires the dealers to understand how to query a relational database. Also, it is not a good practice to grant direct access to important business databases to people or services outside the company.
  17. B. The correct option is B. Cloud Storage is an object storage system well suited to storing unstructured data. Option A is incorrect because Cloud SQL provides relational databases that are used for structured data. Option C is incorrect because Cloud Datastore is a NoSQL document database used with flexible schema data. Option D is incorrect, as Bigtable is a wide-column database that is not suitable for unstructured data.
  18. A. Option A is correct. Cloud Pub/Sub is designed to provide messaging services and fits this use case well. Options B and D are incorrect because, although you may be able to implement asynchronous message exchange using those storage systems, it would be inefficient and require more code than using Cloud Pub/Sub. Option C is incorrect because this would require both the sending and receiving services to run on the same VM.
  19. C. The correct answer is C. Cloud AutoML is a managed service for building machine learning models. TerramEarth’s data could be used to build a predictive model using AutoML. Options A and D are incorrect—they are databases and do not have the tools for building predictive models. Option B is wrong because Cloud Dataflow is a stream and batch processing service.

Chapter 3: Designing for Technical Requirements

  1. A. The correct answer is A. Redundancy is a general strategy for improving availability. Option B is incorrect because lowering network latency will not improve availability of the data storage system. Options C and D are incorrect because there is no indication that either a NoSQL or a relational database will meet the overall storage requirements of the system being discussed.
  2. C. The minimum percentage availability that meets the requirements is option C, which allows for up to 14.4 minutes of downtime per day. All other options would allow for less downtime, but that is not called for by the requirements.
  3. B. The correct answer is B. A code review is a software engineering practice that requires an engineer to review code with another engineer before deploying it. Option A would not solve the problem, as continuous integration reduces the amount of effort required to deploy new versions of software. Options C and D are both security controls, which would not help identify misconfigurations.
  4. B. The correct answer is B, Live Migration, which moves running VMs to different physical servers without interrupting the state of the VM. Option A is incorrect because preemptible VMs are low-cost VMs that may be taken back by Google at any time. Option C is incorrect, as canary deployments are a type of deployment—not a feature of Compute Engine. Option D is incorrect, as arrays of disks are not directly involved in preserving the state of a VM and moving the VM to a functioning physical server.
  5. D. Option D is correct. When a health check fails, the failing VM is replaced by a new VM that is created using the instance group template to configure the new VM. Options A and C are incorrect, as TTL is not used to detect problems with application functioning. Option B is incorrect because the application is not shut down when a health check fails.
  6. B. The correct answer is B. Creating instance groups in multiple regions and routing workload to the closest region using global load balancing will provide the most consistent experience for users in different geographic regions. Option A is incorrect because Cloud Spanner is a relational database and does not affect how game backend services are run except for database operations. Option C is incorrect, as routing traffic over the public Internet means traffic will experience the variance of public Internet routes between regions. Option D is incorrect. A cache will reduce the time needed to read data, but it will not affect network latency when that data is transmitted from a game backend to the player’s device.
  7. D. The correct answer is D. Users do not need to make any configuration changes when using Cloud Storage or Cloud Filestore. Both are fully managed services. Options A and C are incorrect because TTLs do not need to be set to ensure high availability. Options B and C are incorrect because users do not need to specify a health check for managed storage services.
  8. B. The best answer is B. BigQuery is a serverless, fully managed analytic database that uses SQL for querying. Options A and C are incorrect because both Bigtable and Cloud Datastore are NoSQL databases. Option D, Cloud Storage, is not a database, and it does not meet most of the requirements listed.
  9. C. The correct answer is C. Primary-primary replication keeps both clusters synchronized with write operations so that both clusters can respond to queries. Options A, B, and D are not actual replication options.
  10. B. Option B is correct. A redundant network connection would mitigate the risk of losing connectivity if a single network connection went down. Option A is incorrect, as firewall rules are a security control and would not mitigate the risk of network connectivity failures. Option C may help with compute availability, but it does not improve network availability. Option D does not improve availability, and additional bandwidth is not needed.
  11. C. The correct answer is C. Stackdriver should be used to monitor applications and infrastructure to detect early warning signs of potential problems with applications or infrastructure. Option A is incorrect because access controls are a security control and not related to directly improving availability. Option B is incorrect because managed services may not meet all requirements and so should not be required in a company’s standards. Option D is incorrect because collecting and storing performance monitoring data does not improve availability.
  12. C. The correct answer is C. The two applications have different scaling requirements. The compute-intensive backend may benefit from VMs with a large number of CPUs that would not be needed for web serving. Also, the frontend may be able to reduce the number of instances when users are not actively using the user interface, but long compute jobs may still be running in the background. Options A and B are false statements. Option D is incorrect for the reasons explained in reference to Option C.
  13. C. The correct answer is C. The autoscaler may be adding VMs because it has not waited long enough for recently added VMs to start and begin to take on load. Options A and B are incorrect because changing the minimum and maximum number of VMs in the group does not affect the rate at which VMs are added or removed. Option D is incorrect because it reduces the time available for new instances to start taking on workload, so it may actually make the problem worse.
  14. C. The correct answer is C. If the server is shut down without a cleanup script, then data that would otherwise be copied to Cloud Storage could be lost when the VM shuts down. Option A is incorrect because buckets do not have a fixed amount of storage. Option B is incorrect because, if it were true, the service would not function for all users—not just several of them. Option D is incorrect because if there was a connectivity failure between the VM and Cloud Storage, there would be more symptoms of such a failure.
  15. A. The correct answer is A. Pods are the lowest level of the computation abstractions. Deployments are collections of pods running a version of an application. Services are sets of deployments running an application, possibly with multiple versions running in different deployments. Options B, C, and D are all incorrect in the order of progression from lowest to highest level of abstraction.
  16. B. The correct answer is B. The requirements are satisfied by the Kubernetes container orchestration capabilities. Option A is incorrect, as Cloud Functions do not run containers. Option C is incorrect because Cloud Dataproc is a managed service for Hadoop and Spark. Option D is incorrect, as Cloud Dataflow is a managed service for stream and batch processing using the Apache Beam model.
  17. A. The correct answer is A. BigQuery should be used for an analytics database. Partitioning allows the query processor to limit scans to partitions that might have the data selected in a query. Options B and D are incorrect because Bigtable does not support SQL. Options C and D are incorrect because federation is a way of making data from other sources available within a database—it does not limit the data scanned in the way that partitioning does.
  18. B. The correct answer is B. Mean time between failures is a measure of reliability. Option A is a measure of how long it takes to recover from a disruption. Options C and D are incorrect because the time between deployments or errors is not directly related to reliability.
  19. A. The correct answer is A. Request success rate is a measure of how many requests were successfully satisfied. Option B is incorrect because at least some instances of an application may be up at any time, so it does not reflect the capacity available. Options C and D are not relevant measures of risk.
  20. A. The correct answer is A. The persistent storage may be increased in size, but the operating system may need to be configured to use that additional storage. Option B is incorrect because while backing up a disk before operating on it is a good practice, it is not required. Option C is incorrect because changing storage size does not change access control rules. Option D is incorrect because any disk metadata that needs to change when the size changes is updated by the resize process.

Chapter 4: Designing Compute Systems

  1. A. The correct answer is A. Compute Engine instances meet all of the requirements: they can run VMs with minimal changes, and application administrators can have root access. Option B would require the VMs to be deployed as containers. Option C is incorrect because App Engine Standard is limited to applications that can execute in a language-specific runtime. Option D is incorrect, as App Engine Flexible runs containers, not VMs.
  2. B. The best option is B. It meets the requirement of creating and managing the keys without requiring your company to deploy and manage a secure key store. Option A is incorrect because it does not meet the requirements. Option C requires more setup and maintenance than Option B. Option D does not exist, at least for any strong encryption algorithm.
  3. C. Option C is correct. The description of symptoms matches the behavior of preemptible instances. Option A is wrong because collecting performance metrics will not prevent shutdowns. Option B is incorrect, because shutdowns are not triggered by insufficient storage. Option D is incorrect, as the presence or absence of an external IP address would not affect shutdown behavior.
  4. B. Option B is correct. Shielded VMs include the vTPM along with Secure Boot and Integrity Monitoring. Option A is incorrect—there is no such option. Options C and D are not related to vTPM functionality.
  5. B. The correct answer is B. Unmanaged instance groups can have nonidentical instances. Option A is incorrect, as all instances are the same in managed instance groups. Option C is incorrect because there is no such thing as a flexible instance group. Option D is incorrect because Kubernetes clusters run containers and would require changes that are not required if the cluster is migrated to an unmanaged instance group.
  6. B. The correct answer is B. The requirements call for a PaaS. Second-generation App Engine Standard supports Python 3.7, and it does not require users to manage VMs or containers. Option A is incorrect because you would have to manage VMs if you used Compute Engine. Option C is incorrect, as you would have to create containers to run in Kubernetes Engine. Option D is incorrect because Cloud Dataproc is a managed Hadoop and Spark service, and it is not designed to run Python web applications.
  7. B. The correct answer is B. This solution notifies users immediately of any problem and does not require any servers. Option A does not solve the problem of reducing time to notify users when there is a problem. Options C and D solve the problem but do not notify users immediately. Option C also requires you to manage a server.
  8. C. The correct answer is C. App Engine Flexible requires the least effort. App Engine Flexible will run the container and perform health checks and collect performance metrics. Options A and B are incorrect because provisioning and managing Compute Engine instances is more effort than using App Engine Flexible. Option D is incorrect because you cannot run a custom container in App Engine Standard.
  9. A. The correct answer is A. Cluster masters run core services for the cluster, and nodes run workload. Options B and C are incorrect, as the cluster manager is not just an endpoint for APIs. Also, there is no runner node type. Option D is incorrect because nodes do not monitor cluster masters.
  10. C. Option C is correct. Ingress Controllers are needed by Ingress objects, which are objects that control external access to services running in a Kubernetes cluster. Option A is incorrect, as Pods are the lowest level of computational unit, and they run one or more containers. Option B is incorrect, as Deployments are versions of a service that run in a cluster. Option D is incorrect, as Services do not control access from external services.
  11. C. The correct answer is C. StatefulSets deploy pods with unique IDs, which allows Kubernetes to support stateful applications by ensuring that clients can always use the same pod. Answer A is incorrect, as pods are always used for both stateful and stateless applications. Options B and D are incorrect because they are not actually components in Kubernetes.
  12. C. Option C is correct because Cloud Functions can detect authentications to Firebase and run code in response. Sending a message would require a small amount of code, and this can run in Cloud Functions. Options A and B would require more work to set up a service to watch for a login and then send a message. Option D is incorrect, as Cloud Dataflow is a stream and batch processing platform not suitable for responding to events in Firebase.
  13. B. The correct answer is B. Deployment Manager is Google Cloud’s IaaS manager. Option A is incorrect because Cloud Dataflow is a stream and batch processing service. Option C, Identity and Access Management, is an authentication and authorization service. Option D, App Engine Flexible, is a PaaS offering that allows users to customize their own runtimes using containers.
  14. A. The correct answer is A. This application is stateful. It collects and maintains data about sensors in servers and evaluates that data. Option B is incorrect because the application stores data about a stream, so it is stateful. Option C is incorrect because there is enough information. Option D is incorrect because the application stores data about the stream, so it is stateful.
  15. B. The correct answer is B. Of the four options, a cache is most likely used to store state data. If instances are lost, state information is not lost as well. Option A is incorrect; Memorystore is not a SQL database. Option C is incorrect because Memorystore does not provide extraction, transformation, and load services. Option D is incorrect because Memorystore is not a persistent object store.
  16. C. Option C is the correct answer. Using a queue between the services allows the first service to write data as fast as needed, while the second service reads data as fast as it can. The second service can catch up after peak load subsides. Options A, B, and D do not decouple the services.
  17. B. Option B is the correct answer. Cloud Dataflow is Google Cloud’s implementation on Apache Beam. Option A, Cloud Dataproc, is a managed Hadoop and Spark service. Option C, Cloud Dataprep, is a data preparation tool for analysis and machine learning. Option D, Cloud Memorystore, is a managed cache service.
  18. B. Option B is the correct answer. Stackdriver is Google Cloud’s monitoring and logging service. Option A, Cloud Dataprep, is data preperation tool for analysis and machine learning. Option C, Cloud Dataproc, is a managed Hadoop and Spark service. Option D, Cloud Memorystore, is a managed cache service.
  19. B. The correct answer is B. Managed instances groups can autoscale, so this option would automatically add or remove instances as needed. Options A and D are not as cost efficient as Option B. Option C is incorrect because App Engine Standard does not provide a C++ runtime.
  20. B. Option B is correct. Cloud Dataflow is designed to support stream and batch processing, and it can write data to BigQuery. Options A is incorrect, as Firebase is GCP’s mobile development platform. Option D is incorrect, Datastore is a NoSQL database. Option C is incorrect because Cloud Memorystore is a managed cache service.

Chapter 5: Designing Storage Systems

  1. A. The correct answer is A. The Cloud Storage Coldline service is designed for long-term storage of infrequently accessed objects. Option B is not the best answer because Nearline should be used with objects that are not accessed up to once a month. Coldline storage is more cost effective and still meets the requirements. Option C is incorrect. Cloud Filestore is a network filesystem, and it is used to store data that is actively used by applications running on Compute Engine VM and Kubernetes Engine clusters.
  2. B. The correct answer is B. Do not use sequential names or timestamps if uploading files in parallel. Files with sequentially close names will likely be assigned to the same server. This can create a hotspot when writing files to Cloud Storage. Option A is incorrect, as this could cause hotspots. Options C and D affect the lifecycle of files once they are written and do not impact upload efficiency.
  3. C. The correct answer is C. Multiregional Cloud Storage replicates data to multiple regions. In the event of a failure in one region, the data could be retrieved from another region. Options A and B are incorrect because those are databases, not file storage systems. Option D is incorrect because it does not meet the requirement of providing availability in the event of a single region failure.
  4. B. The correct answer is B. Cloud Filestore is a network-attached storage service that provides a filesystem that is accessible from Compute Engine. Filesystems in Cloud Filestore can be mounted using standard operating system commands. Option A, Cloud Storage, is incorrect because it does not provide a filesystem. Options C and D are incorrect because databases do not provide filesystems.
  5. C. The correct answer is C. Cloud SQL is a managed database service that supports MySQL and PostgreSQL. Option A is incorrect because Bigtable is a wide-column NoSQL database, and it is not a suitable substitute for MySQL. Option B is incorrect because BigQuery is optimized for data warehouse and analytic databases, not transactional databases. Option D is incorrect, as Cloud Filestore is not a database.
  6. A. The correct answer is A. Cloud Spanner is a managed database service that supports horizontal scalability across regions. It supports strong consistency so that there is no risk of data anomalies caused by eventual consistency. Option B is incorrect because Cloud SQL cannot scale globally. Option C is incorrect, as Cloud Storage does not meet the database requirements. Option D is incorrect because BigQuery is not designed for transaction processing systems.
  7. D. The correct answer is D. All data in GCP is encrypted when at rest. The other options are incorrect because they do not include all GCP storage services.
  8. C. The correct answer is C. The bq command-line tool is used to work with BigQuery. Option A, gsutil, is the command-line tool for working with Cloud Storage, and Option D, cbt, is the command-line tool for working with Bigtable. Option B, gcloud, is the command-line tool for most other GCP services.
  9. A. The correct answer is A. dataViewer allows a user to list projects and tables and get table data and metadata. Options B and D would enable the user to view data but would grant more permissions than needed. Option C does not grant permission to view data in tables.
  10. C. The correct answer is C. --dry-run returns an estimate of the number of bytes that would be returned if the query were executed. The other choices are not actually bq command-line options.
  11. D. The correct answer is D. NoSQL data has flexible schemas. The other options specify features that are found in relational databases. ACID transactions and indexes are found in some NoSQL databases as well.
  12. D. The correct answer is D. Bigtable is the best option for storing streaming data because it provides low-latency writes and can store petabytes of data. The database would need to store petabytes of data if the number of users scales as planned. Option A is a poor choice because a managed database would meet requirements and require less administration support. Option B will not scale to the volume of data expected. Option C, Cloud Spanner, could scale to store the volumes of data, but it is not optimized for low-latency writes of streaming data.
  13. B. The correct answer is B—create multiple clusters in the instance and use Bigtable replication. Options A and C are not correct, as they require developing custom applications to partition data or keep replicas synchronized. Option D is incorrect because the requirements can be met.
  14. B. The correct answer is B. Cloud Datastore is a managed document database, which is a kind of NoSQL database that uses a flexible JSON-like data structure. Option A is incorrect—it is not a database. Options C and D are not good fits because the JSON data would have to be mapped to relational structures to take advantage of the full range of relational features. There is no indication that additional relational features are required.
  15. C. The correct answer is C. You could try to cache results to reduce the number of reads on the database. Option A is not a good choice because it does not reduce the number of reads, and there is no indication that the scale of Cloud Spanner is needed. Option B is not a good choice because Bigtable is a NoSQL database and may not meet the database needs of the application. Option D is incorrect because caching is an option.
  16. B. Option B is correct. Lifecycle policies allow you to specify an action, like changing storage class, after an object reaches a specified age. Option A is incorrect, as retention policies prevent premature deleting of an object. Option C is incorrect. This is a feature used to implement retention policies.
  17. A. The correct answer is A. Cloud CDN distributes copies of static data to points of presence around the globe so that it can be closer to users. Option B is incorrect. Premium Network routes data over the internal Google network, but it does not extend to client devices. Option C will not help with latency. Option D is incorrect because moving the location of the server might reduce the latency for some users, but it would likely increase latency for other users, as they could be located anywhere around the globe.

Chapter 6: Designing Networks

  1. B. The correct answer is B. Default subnets are each assigned a distinct, nonoverlapping IP address range. Option A is incorrect, as default subnets use private addresses. Option C is incorrect because increasing the size of the subnet mask does not necessarily prevent overlaps. Option D is an option that would also ensure nonoverlapping addresses, but it is not necessary given the stated requirements.
  2. A. The correct answer is A. A Shared VPC allows resources in one project to access the resources in another project. Option B is incorrect, as load balancing does not help with network access. Options C and D are incorrect because those are mechanisms for hybrid cloud computing. In this case, all resources are in GCP, so hybrid networking is not needed.
  3. B. The correct answer is B. The default-allow-internal rule allows ingress connections for all protocols and ports among instances in the network. Option A is incorrect because implied rules cannot be deleted, and the implied rules alone would not be enough to enable all instances to connect to all other instances. Option C is incorrect because that rule governs the ICMP protocol for management services, like ping. Option D is incorrect because 65535 is the largest number/lowest priority allowed for firewall rules.
  4. A. The correct answer is A. 0 is the highest priority for firewall rules. All the other options are incorrect because they have priorities that are not guaranteed to enable the rule to take precedence.
  5. B. The correct answer is B. 8 is the number of bits used to specify the subnet mask. Option A is wrong because 24 is the number of bits available to specify a host address. Options C and D are wrong, as the integer does not indicate an octet.
  6. C. The correct answer is C. Disabling a firewall rule allows you to turn off the effect of a rule quickly without deleting it. Option A is incorrect because it does not help isolate the rule or rules causing the problem, and it may introduce new problems because the new rules may take precedence in cases they did not before. Option B is not helpful because alone it would not help isolate the problematic rule or rules. Option D is incorrect because it will leave the VPC with only implied rules. Adding back all rules could be time-consuming, and having no rules could cause additional problems.
  7. C. The correct answer is C. Hybrid networking is needed to enable the transfer of data to the cloud to build models and then transfer models back to the on-premises servers. Option A is incorrect because firewall rules restrict or allow traffic on a network—they do not link networks. Options B and D are incorrect because load balancing does not link networks.
  8. D. The correct answer is D. With mirrored topology, public cloud and private on-premise environments mirror each other. Options A and B are not correct because gated topologies are used to allow access to APIs in other networks without exposing them to the public Internet. Option C is incorrect because that topology is used to exchange data and have different processing done in different environments.
  9. B. The correct answer is B. Cloud VPN implements IPsec VPNs. All other options are incorrect because they are not names of actual services available in GCP.
  10. B. The correct answer is B. Partner Interconnect provides between 50 Mbps and 10 Gbps connections. Option A, Cloud VPN, provides up to 3 Gbps connections. Option C, Direct Interconnect, provides 10 or 100 Gbps connections. Option D is not an actual GCP service name.
  11. C. The correct answer is C. Both direct interconnect and partner interconnect can be configured to support between 60 Gbps and 80 Gbps. All other options are wrong because Cloud VPN supports a maximum of 3 Gbps.
  12. A. The correct answer is A. Direct peering allows customers to connect their networks to a Google network point of access and exchange Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) routes, which define paths for transmitting data between networks. Options B and D are not the names of GCP services. Option C is not correct because global load balancing does not link networks.
  13. A. The correct answer is A. HTTP(S) load balancers are global and will route HTTP traffic to the region closest to the user making a request. Option B is incorrect, as SSL Proxy is used for non-HTTPS SSL traffic. Option C is incorrect because it does not support external traffic from the public Internet. Option D is incorrect, as TCP Proxy is used for non-HTTP(S) traffic.
  14. A. The correct answer is A. Only Internal TCP/UDP supports load balancing using private IP addressing. The other options are all incorrect because they cannot load balance using private IP addresses.
  15. C. The correct answer is C. All global load balancers require the Premium Tier network, which routes all data over the Google global network and not the public Internet. Option A is incorrect, as object storage is not needed. Option C is incorrect because a VPN is not required. Option D is incorrect, as that is another kind of global load balancer that would require Premium Tier networking.

Chapter 7: Designing for Security and Legal Compliance

  1. C. Option C, a service account, is the best choice for an account that will be associated with an application or resource, such as a VM. Both options A and B should be used with actual users. Option D is not a valid type of identity in GCP.
  2. A. The correct answer is A. The identities should be assigned to groups and predefined roles assigned to those groups. Assigning roles to groups eases administrative overhead because users receive permissions when they are added to a group. Removing a user from a group removes permissions from the user, unless the user receives that permission in another way. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because you cannot assign permissions directly to a user.
  3. B. The correct answer is option B. Fine-grained permission and predefined roles help implement least privilege because each predefined role has only the permissions needed to carry out a specific set of responsibilities. Option A is incorrect. Primitive roles are coarse grained and grant more permissions than often needed. Option C is incorrect. Simply creating a particular type of identity does not by itself associate permissions with users. Option D is not the best option because it requires more administrative overhead than Option B, and it is a best practice to use predefined roles as much as possible and only create custom roles when a suitable predefined role does not exist.
  4. C. The correct option is C—three trust domains. The frontend, backend, and database are all logically separated. They run on three different platforms. Each should be in its own trust domain. Options A and B are incorrect, as they are too few. Option D is incorrect because all services should be considered within a trust domain.
  5. A. The correct answer is A. A group should be created for administrators and granted the necessary roles, which in this case is roles/logging.admin. The identity of the person responsible for a period should be added at the start of the period, and the person who was previously responsible should be removed from the group. Option B is not the best option because it assigns roles to an identity, which is allowed but not recommended. If the team changes strategy and wants to have three administrators at a time, roles would have to be granted and revoked to multiple identities rather than a single group. Options C and D are incorrect because roles/logging.privateLogViewer does not grant administrative access.
  6. D. The correct answer is D. You do not need to configure any settings to have data encrypted at rest in GCP. Options B, C, and D are all incorrect because no configuration is required.
  7. A. The correct answer is A. Option B is incorrect, but it is a strong encryption algorithm and could be used to encrypt data. Option C is incorrect. DES is a weak encryption algorithm that is easily broken by today’s methods. Option D is incorrect. Blowfish is a strong encryption algorithm designed as a replacement for DES and other weak encryption algorithms but it is not used in GCP.
  8. B. The correct answer is B. The data encryption key is encrypted using a key encryption key. Option A is incorrect. There are no hidden locations on disk that are inaccessible from a hardware perspective. Option C is incorrect. Keys are not stored in a relational database. Option D is incorrect. An elliptic curve encryption algorithm is not used.
  9. C. The correct answer is C. Layer 7 is the application layer, and Google uses ALTS at that level. Options A and B are incorrect. IPSec and TLS are used by Google but not at layer 7. Option D is incorrect. ARP is an address resolution protocol, not a security protocol.
  10. C. The correct answer is C. Cloud KMS is the key management service in GCP. It is designed specifically to store keys securely and manage the lifecycle of keys. Options A and C are incorrect. They are both document databases and are not suitable for low-latency, highly secure key storage. Option D is incorrect. Bigtable is designed for low-latency, high-write volume operations over variable structured data. It is not designed for secure key management.
  11. B. The correct answer is B. Cloud Storage is the best option for maintaining archived data such as log data. Also, since the data is not likely to be accessed, Coldline storage would be the most cost-effective option. Option A is incorrect because Stackdriver does not retain log data for five years. Option C is not the best option since the data does not need to be queried, and it is likely not structured sufficiently to be stored efficiently in BigQuery. Option D is incorrect. Cloud Pub/Sub is a messaging service, not a long-term data store.
  12. B. The correct answer is B. The duties of the development team are separated so that no one person can both approve a deployment and execute a deployment. Option A is incorrect. Defense in depth is the use of multiple security controls to mitigate the same risk. Option C is incorrect because least privilege applies to a set of permissions granted for a single task, such as deploying to production. Option D is incorrect. Encryption at rest is not related to the scenario described in the question.
  13. C. The correct answer is C. The service will collect personal information of children under 13 in the United States, so COPPA applies. Option A is incorrect because HIPAA and HITECH apply to protected healthcare data. Option B is incorrect because SOX applies to financial data. Option D is incorrect because GDPR applies to citizens of the European Union, not the United States.
  14. D. The correct answer is D. The service will collect personal information from citizens of the European Union, so GDPR applies. Option A is incorrect because HIPAA and HITECH apply to protected healthcare data. Option B is incorrect because SOX applies to financial data. Option C is incorrect, as it applies to children in the United States.
  15. A. The correct answer is A. ITIL is a framework for aligning business and IT strategies and practices. Option B is incorrect because TOGAF is an enterprise architecture framework. Option C is incorrect because the Porters Five Forces Model is used to assess competitiveness. Option D is incorrect because the Ansoff Matrix is used to summarize growth strategies.

Chapter 8: Designing for Reliability

  1. A. The correct answer is A. If the goal is to understand performance characteristics, then metrics, particularly time-series data, will show the values of key measurements associated with performance, such as utilization of key resources. Option B is incorrect because detailed log data describes significant events but does not necessarily convey resource utilization or other performance-related data. Option C is incorrect because errors are types of events that indicate a problem but are not helpful for understanding normal, baseline operations. Option D is incorrect because acceptance tests measure how well a system meets business requirements but does not provide point-in-time performance information.
  2. B. The correct answer is B. Alerting policies are sets of conditions, notification specifications, and selection criteria for determining resources to monitor. Option A is incorrect because one or more conditions are necessary but not sufficient. Option C is incorrect because a log message specification describes the content written to a log when an event occurs. Option D is incorrect because acceptance tests are used to assess how well a system meets business requirements; it is not related to alerting.
  3. C. The correct answer is C. Audit logs would contain information about changes to user privileges, especially privilege escalations such as granting root or administrative access. Option A and Option B are incorrect, as neither records detailed information about access control changes. Option D may have some information about user privilege changes, but notes may be changed and otherwise tampered with, so on their own they are insufficient sources of information for compliance review purposes.
  4. C. The correct option is C. Release management practices reduce manual effort to deploy code. This allows developers to roll out code more frequently and in smaller units and, if necessary, quickly roll back problematic releases. Option A is incorrect because release management is not related to programming paradigms. Option B is incorrect because release management does not require waterfall methodologies. Option D is incorrect. Release management does not influence the use of stateful or stateless services.
  5. A. The correct answer is A. These are tests that check the smallest testable unit of code. These tests should be run before any attempt to build a new version of an application. Option B is incorrect because a stress test could be run on the unit of code, but it is more than what is necessary to test if the application should be built. Option C is incorrect because acceptance tests are used to confirm that business requirements are met; a build that only partially meets business requirements is still useful for developers to create. Option D is incorrect because compliance tests is a fictitious term and not an actual class of tests used in release management.
  6. C. The correct answer is C. This is a canary deployment. Option A is incorrect because Blue/Green deployment uses two fully functional environments and all traffic is routed to one of those environments at a time. Option B and Option D are incorrect because they are not actual names of deployment types.
  7. D. The correct answer is D. GitHub and Cloud Source Repositories are version control systems. Option A is incorrect because Jenkins is a CI/CD tool, not a version control system. Option B is incorrect because neither Syslog nor Cloud Build is a version control system. Option C is incorrect because Cloud Build is not a version control system.
  8. D. The correct answer is D. A Blue/Green deployment is the kind of deployment that allows developers to deploy new code to an entire environment before switching traffic to it. Option A and Option B are incorrect because they are incremental deployment strategies. Option C is not an actual deployment strategy.
  9. A. The correct option is A. The developers should create a patch to shed load. Option B would not solve the problem, since more connections would allow more clients to connect to the database, but CPU and memory are saturated, so no additional work can be done. Option C could be part of a long-term architecture change, but it could not be implemented quickly. Option D could also be part of a longer-term solution to allow a database to buffer requests and process them at a rate allowed by available database resources.
  10. B. The correct answer is B. This is an example of upstream or client throttling. Option A is incorrect because load is not shed; rather, it is just delayed. Option C is incorrect. There is no rebalancing of load, such as might be done on a Kafka topic. Option D is incorrect. There is no mention of partitioning data.

Chapter 9: Analyzing and Defining Technical Processes

  1. B. The correct answer is B. Analysis defines the scope of the problem and assessing options for solving the problem. Design produces high-level and detailed plans that guide development. Option A is incorrect, as business continuity planning is not required before development, though it can occur alongside development. Option C is incorrect because testing occurs after software is developed. Similarly, option D is incorrect because documentation comes after development as well.
  2. A. The correct answer is A. COTS stands for commercial off-the-shelf software, so the question is about research related to the question of buy versus build. Option B is incorrect, as COTS is not an ORM. Options C and D are both incorrect. COTS is not about business continuity or disaster recovery.
  3. C. Option C is correct. ROI is a measure used to compare the relative value of different investments. Option A is a measure of reliability and availability. Option B is a requirement related to disaster recovery. Option D is a fictitious measure.
  4. C. The correct answer is C because questions of data structure are not usually addressed until the detail design stage. Option A is incorrect, as analysis is about scoping a problem and choosing a solution approach. Option B is incorrect because high-level design is dedicated to identifying subcomponents and how they function together. Option D is incorrect because the maintenance phase is about keeping software functioning.
  5. C. The correct answer is C. In the middle of the night the primary goal is to get the service functioning properly. Operations documentation, like runbooks, provide guidance on how to start services and correct problems. Option A is incorrect because design documentation may describe why design decisions were made—it does not contain distilled information about running the service. Option B is incorrect, as user documentation is for customers of the service. Option D is incorrect because, although developer documentation may eventually help the engineer understand the reason why the service failed, it is not the best option for finding specific guidance on getting the service to function normally.
  6. B. The correct answer is B. This is an example of continuous integration because code is automatically merged with the baseline application code. Option A is not an actual process. Option C is not an actual process, and it should not be confused with continual deployment. Option D is incorrect because the software development lifecycle includes continuous integration and much more.
  7. D. The correct answer is D. This is an example of chaos engineering. Netflix’s Simian Army is a collection of tools that support chaos engineering. Option A is incorrect because this is a reasonable approach to improving reliability, assuming that the practice is transparent and coordinated with others responsible for the system. Option B is incorrect. This is not a test to ensure that components work together. It is an experiment to see what happens when some components do not work. Option C is incorrect. This does test the ability of the system to process increasingly demanding workloads.
  8. D. The correct answer is D. The goal of the post-mortem is to learn how to prevent this kind of incident again. Options A, B, and C are all wrong because they focus on blaming a single individual for an incident that occurred because of multiple factors. Also, laying blame does not contribute to finding a solution. In cases where an individual’s negligence or lack of knowledge is a significant contributing factor, then other management processes should be used to address the problem. Post-mortems exist to learn and to correct technical processes.
  9. C. The correct answer is C. ITIL is a set of enterprise IT practices for managing the full range of IT processes, from planning and development to security and support. Options A and B are likely to be found in all well-run software development teams. Option D may not be used at many startups, but it should be.
  10. C. The correct answer is C. Disaster recovery is a part of business continuity planning. Options A and B are wrong. They are neither the same nor are they unrelated. Option D is incorrect because it has the relationship backward.
  11. A. The correct answer is A. ISO/IEC 20000 is a service management standard. Options B and C are incorrect. They are programming language–specific standards for Java and Python, respectively. Option D is incorrect. ISO/IEC 27002 is a security standard, although you may reference it for security-related practices.
  12. D. The correct answer is D. There may be an underlying bug in code or weakness in the design that should be corrected. Options A and B are incorrect because it should be addressed, since it adversely impacts customers. Option C is incorrect because software engineers and architects can recognize a customer-impacting flaw and correct it.
  13. C. The correct answer is C. A disaster plan documents a strategy for responding to a disaster. It includes information such as where operations will be established, which services are the highest priority, what personnel are considered vital to recovery operations, as well as plans for dealing with insurance carriers and maintaining relations with suppliers and customers. Option A is incorrect. Recovery time objectives cannot be set until the details of the recovery plan are determined. Option B is incorrect because you cannot decide what risk to transfer to an insurance company before understanding what the risks and recovery objectives are. Option D is incorrect. A service management plan is part of an enterprise IT process structure.
  14. C. The correct answer is C. Option A is not correct because blaming engineers and immediately imposing severe consequences is counterproductive. It will tend to foster an environment that is not compatible with agile development practices. Option B is incorrect because this could be highly costly in terms of engineers’ time, and it is unlikely to find subtle bugs related to the complex interaction of multiple components in a distributed system. Option D is incorrect because, while additional training may be part of the solution, that is for the manager to decide. Post-mortems should be blameless, and suggesting that someone be specifically targeted for additional training in a post-mortem implies some level of blame.
  15. C. The correct answer is C. The criteria for determining when to invoke the disaster recovery plan should be defined before a team might have to deal with a disaster. Options A, B, and C are all incorrect because the decision should not be left to the sole discretion of an individual manager, service owner, or engineer. A company policy should be in place for determining when to invoke a DR plan.

Chapter 10: Analyzing and Defining Business Processes

  1. A. The correct answer is A. Each of the individuals invited to the meeting have an interest in the project. Option B is incorrect since there is no mention of compliance requirements and regulations do not typically dictate meeting structures. Options C and D are incorrect, as there is no discussion of cost or skill building.
  2. B. Option B is correct. A project is part of a program, and programs span multiple departments; both exist to execute organizational strategy. Option A is incorrect because the words do mean different things. Option C is incorrect because programs are not part of projects. Option D is incorrect because projects do not refer only to software engineering efforts.
  3. D. The correct answer is D. This is an example of communicating with stakeholders and influencing their opinions about options. Option A is incorrect, as the stakeholders are not identified here. Option B is incorrect because there is no discussion of individuals’ roles and scope of interest. Option C is incorrect because the architect did not publish a plan.
  4. B. The correct answer is B. This is a change because of the introduction of a competitive product with more features. Option A is incorrect. This is not a change prompted by the actions of an individual, such as someone leaving the company. Option C is incorrect because a skills gap did not trigger the change, although there may be a skills gap on the team that now has to implement alerting. Option D is incorrect. There is no mention of economic factors, such as a recession.
  5. D. The correct answer is D. The changes were prompted by a new regulation. Option A is incorrect. This is not a change prompted by the actions of an individual, such as someone leaving the company. Option B is incorrect, as there is no mention of competitive pressures. Option C is incorrect. A skills gap did not trigger the change, although there may be a skills gap on the team that now has to implement alerting.
  6. C. The correct option is C. The program manager should use a change management methodology to control and better understand changes. Option A is incorrect. A program manager may not be able to stop some changes, such as changes due to regulatory changes, without adverse consequences. Option B is incorrect because it does not solve the problem presented but may be part of a solution that includes using a change management strategy. Option D is incorrect, as cost controls will not help the program manager understand the impact of changes.
  7. B. The correct answer is B. This is an example of a digital transformation initiative that is attempting fundamental changes in the way that the company delivers value to its customers. Option A is incorrect. This is not a typical change management issue because it involves the entire enterprise introducing multiple new technologies. Option C is incorrect. The scope of this initiative is in response to more than a single competitor. Option D is incorrect. This is not a cost management initiative.
  8. B. The correct answer is B. This exercise is an attempt to identify a skills gap—in this case mobile development skills. Option A is incorrect. This is not about defining skills needed, as that has already been done. Option C is incorrect because it is premature to develop a plan until the gaps are understood. Option D is incorrect because there is no mention of hiring additional engineers.
  9. C. The correct answer is C. This is an example of developing the skills of individual contributors. Option A is incorrect. This is not about defining skills needed. Option B is incorrect. This is not about identifying skills gaps, as that has already been done. Option D is incorrect because it does not entail recruiting.
  10. D. The correct answer is D. This is an example of recruiting. Option A is incorrect, as this is not about defining skills needed. Option B is incorrect. This is not about identifying skills gaps, as that has already been done. Option C is incorrect because it does not entail planning training and skill development.
  11. C. The correct answer is C. This is an example of professional services because it involves custom support and development for customers. Option A is incorrect because the customer is already acquired. Option B is incorrect because there is no marketing or sales involved. Option D is incorrect because this is a consulting engagement and not a training activity.
  12. D. The correct answer is D. This is an example of training and support because those are support activities. Option A is incorrect because the customer is already acquired. Option B is incorrect because there is no marketing or sales involved. Option C is incorrect because this is not a consulting engagement.
  13. A. The correct answer is A. This is an example of acquiring customers. Option B is incorrect because there is no marketing or sales involved. Option C is incorrect because this is not a consulting engagement. Option D is incorrect because this does not involve training and support activities.
  14. A. The correct answer is A. This is an example of resource planning because it involves prioritizing projects and programs. Options B and C are incorrect because there is no cost estimating or budgeting done in the meeting. Option D is incorrect because it does not involve expenditure approvals or reporting.
  15. D. The correct answer is D. This effort involves reporting on expenditures. Option A is incorrect because there is no review of proposed projects or discussion of priorities. Options B and C are incorrect because there is no cost estimating or budgeting done in the meeting.

Chapter 11: Development and Operations

  1. C. The correct answer is C. This is an example of waterfall methodology because each stage of the software development lifecycle is performed once and never revisited. Option A is incorrect. Extreme programming is a type of agile methodology. Option B is incorrect because there is no tight collaboration, rapid development and deployment, and frequent testing. Option D is incorrect because the steps of the software development lifecycle are not repeated with each iteration focused on defining a subset of work and identifying risks.
  2. D. The correct answer is D. This is an example of spiral methodology because each stage of the software development lifecycle is repeated in a cyclical manner, and each iteration begins with scoping work and identifying risks. Option A is incorrect. Extreme programming is a type of agile methodology. Option B is incorrect because there is no tight collaboration, rapid development and deployment, and frequent testing. Option C is incorrect because the steps of the software development lifecycle are repeated.
  3. B. The correct answer is B. This is an example of an agile methodology because developers and stakeholders work closely together, development is done in small units of work that include frequent testing and release, and the team is able to adapt to changes in requirements without following a rigid linear or cyclical process. Option A is incorrect. Continuous integration is not an application development methodology. Option D is incorrect because the steps of the software development lifecycle are not repeated with each iteration focused on defining a subset of work and identifying risks.
  4. A. The correct answer is A. You are incurring technical debt by making a suboptimal design and coding choice in order to meet other requirements or constraints. The code will need to be refactored in the future. Option B is incorrect. This is not an example of refactoring suboptimal code. Option C is incorrect, as there is no shifting or transferring of risk. Option D is incorrect. There is no mention that this change would improve the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the service.
  5. B. The correct answer is B. You are paying down technical debt by changing suboptimal code that was intentionally used to mitigate but not correct a bug. Option A is incorrect. This is not an example of incurring technical debt because you are not introducing suboptimal code in order to meet other requirements or constraints. Option C is incorrect. There is no shifting or transferring of risk. Option D is incorrect. There is no mention that this change would improve the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the service.
  6. B. The correct answer is B. The standard API operations are list, get, create, update, and delete. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they are all missing at least one of the standard functions.
  7. B. The correct answer is B. The API should return a standard status code used for errors, in other words, from the 400s or 500s, and include additional details in the payload. Option A is incorrect. 200 is the standard HTTP success code. Option C is incorrect because it does not return a standard error code. Option D is incorrect because HTTP APIs should follow broadly accepted conventions so that users of the API can process standard error messages and not have to learn application-specific error messages.
  8. A. The correct answer is A. JWTs are a standard way to make authentication assertions securely. Option B is incorrect. API keys can be used for authentication, but they do not carry authentication assertions. Option C is incorrect. Encryption does not specify authentication information. Option D is incorrect. HTTPS does not provide authentication assertions.
  9. D. The correct answer is D. This is an example of rate limiting because it is putting a cap on the number of function calls allowed by a user during a specified period of time. Option A is incorrect. This is not encryption. Option B is incorrect because defense in depth requires at least two distinct security controls. Option C is incorrect. The solution does not limit privileges based on a user’s role. In this case, most users are players. They continue to have the same privileges that they had before resource limiting was put in place.
  10. A. The correct answer is A. This is an example of data-driven testing because the input data and expected output data are stated as part of the test. Option B is incorrect because this testing approach does not include two or more frameworks. Option C is incorrect because it does not include a set of detailed instructions for executing the test. Option D is incorrect. No simulator is used to generate inputs and expected outputs.
  11. A. The correct answer is A. This is a lift-and-shift migration because only required changes are made to move the application to the cloud. Option B and Option C are incorrect because there is no new development in this migration. Option D is not a valid type of migration strategy.
  12. A. The correct answer is the Google Transfer Service, which executes jobs that specify source and target locations. It is the recommended method for transferring data from other clouds. Option B could be used, but it is not the recommended practice, so it should not be the first option considered. Option C is incorrect. The Google Transfer Service has to be installed in your data center, so it is not an option for migrating data from a public cloud. Option D is incorrect. Cloud Dataproc is a managed Hadoop and Spark service. It is not used for data migrations.
  13. C. The correct answer is C. The Cloud Transfer Appliance should be used. Sending 5 PB over a 10 GB network would take approximately two months to transfer. Option A and Option D are not correct because they would use the 10 GB network, and that would take too long to transfer and consume network resources. Option B is incorrect. gcloud is used to manage many GCP services; it is not used to transfer data from on-premises data centers to Cloud Storage.
  14. B. The correct answer is B. bq is the GCP SDK component used to manage BigQuery. Option A is incorrect. cbt is used to manage Bigtable. Option C is incorrect. gsutil is used to work with Cloud Storage. Option D is incorrect. kubect is used to work with Kubernetes.
  15. C. The correct answer is C. gcloud is the utility that manages SDK components. Option A is incorrect. gsutil is for working with Cloud Storage. Option B is incorrect. cbt is for working with Bigtable. Option D is incorrect. bq is used for working with BigQuery.

Chapter 12: Migration Planning

  1. A. The correct answer is A. Before migrating to the cloud, one of the first steps is understanding your own infrastructure, dependencies, compliance issues, and licensing structure. Option B is incorrect. Without an understanding of what you want from a cloud vendor, it is not possible to create a request for proposal. Option C is incorrect. It is too early to discuss licensing if you don’t understand your current licensing situation and what licensing you want to have in the cloud. Option D is incorrect. It is a reasonable thing to do as a CTO, but it is too broad of a topic, and instead discussions should be focused on IT-related pain points.
  2. B. The correct answer is B. Conducting a pilot project will provide an opportunity to learn about the cloud environment. Option A is incorrect, as applications should be migrated after data. Option C is incorrect. There is no need to migrate all identities and access controls until you understand which identities will need particular roles in the cloud. Option D is incorrect. There is no reason given that would warrant redesigning a relational database as part of the migration.
  3. C. The correct answer is C. You should be looking for a recognition that data classification and regulation needs to be considered and addressed. Option A is incorrect. Database and network administrators will manage database configuration details when additional information on database implementations are known. Option B is incorrect. It is not necessary to specify firewall rules at this stage, since the plan has not been approved. Option D is incorrect. Current backup operations are not relevant to the migration plan any more than any other routine operational procedures.
  4. A. The correct answer is A. Java is a widely used, widely supported language for developing a range of applications, including enterprise applications. There is little risk moving a Java application from an on-premises platform to the cloud. All other options are considerable factors in assessing the risk of moving the application.
  5. C. The correct answer is C. Because of the strict SLAs, the database should not be down as long as would be required if a MySQL export were used. Option A and Option B would leave the database unavailable longer than allowed or needed. Option D is not needed because of the small data volume, and it would require the database to be down longer than allowed by the SLA.
  6. B. The correct answer is B. This is an example of bring your own license. Option A is a fictitious term. Options C and D both refer to pay based on usage in the cloud.
  7. C. The correct answer is C. This is an example of pay-as-you-go licensing. Options A and D are fictitious terms. Option B is incorrect. You are not using a license that you own in this scenario.
  8. C. The correct answer is C. VPCs are the highest networking abstraction and constitute a collection of network components. Options A, B, and C are wrong because they are lower-level components within a VPC.
  9. D. The correct answer is D. It is not an RFC 1918 private address, which is within the address ranges used with subnets. Options A, B, and C are all incorrect because they are private address ranges and may be used with subnets.
  10. B. The correct answer is B because each VPN endpoint supports up to 3 Gbps, so two will be sufficient. Option A is incorrect. That would provide only half of the needed bandwidth. Options C and D are incorrect because, although they would have sufficient bandwidth, they would cost more and there is no business justification for the additional cost.
  11. B. The correct answer is B. Firewall rules are used to control the flow of traffic. Option A is incorrect because IAM roles are used to assign permissions to identities, such as users or service accounts. Option C is incorrect. A VPN is a network link between Google Cloud and on-premises networks. Option D is incorrect. VPCs are high-level abstractions grouping lower-level network components.
  12. A. The correct answer is A. IAM roles are used to assign permissions to identities, such as users or service accounts. These permissions are assigned to roles which are assigned to users. Option B is incorrect. Firewall rules are used to control the flow of traffic between subnets. Option C is incorrect. A VPN is a network link between the Google Cloud and on-premises networks. Option D is incorrect. VPCs are high-level abstractions grouping lower-level network components.
  13. A. The correct answer is A. Global load balancing is the service that would route traffic to the nearest healthy instance using Premium Network Tier. Option B is incorrect. SNMP is a management protocol, and it does not enable global routing. Options C and D are wrong because they are network services but do not enable global routing.
  14. A. The correct answer is A, global load balancing will route traffic to the nearest healthy instance. Option B is incorrect, Cloud Interconnect is a way to implement hybrid computing. Option C is incorrect. Content delivery networks are used to distribute content in order to reduce latency when delivering that content. Option D is incorrect. VPNs link on-premises data centers to the Google Cloud.
  15. C. The correct answer is C. A content delivery network would be used to distribute video content globally to reduce network latency. Option A is incorrect. Routes are used to control traffic flow and are not directly related to reducing latency of content delivery, although a poorly configured set of routes could cause unnecessarily long latencies. Option B is incorrect. Firewalls will not reduce latency. Option D is incorrect because VPNs are used to link on-premises data centers to the Google Cloud.
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Official Google Cloud Certified Professional Cloud Architect Study Guide
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